So, apparently, 1/ω ≠ 1/(ω+1) in surreal numbers. But if I understand 
correctly, which is unlikely, we still don't have a definition of integration 
for surreal numbers. So, I'd hesitate to rely on that as an authority. I now 
wonder if all infinitesimals have the same size in the hyperreals? And even if 
they have the same size, are they the *same number*?

In my ignorance, it seems like we have 2 examples with which to form a (perhaps 
false but useful) dichotomy:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nonstandard_analysis, where it seems like 
infinitesimals are distinguishable and 
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Synthetic_differential_geometry, where they are 
not (or not all of them ... or ... something). I have a lot of homework to do, 
I guess.


On 7/23/20 10:40 AM, uǝlƃ ↙↙↙ wrote:
> Thanks for putting in a little more effort. So, in your definitions, 1/aleph0 
> = 1/aleph1. That's tightly analogous, if not identical, to saying a point is 
> divisible because point/2 = point. But before you claimed a point is 
> indivisible. So, if you were more clear about which authority you were citing 
> when you make your claims, we wouldn't have these discussions.
> 
> On 7/23/20 10:35 AM, Frank Wimberly wrote:
>> I am aware of the hierarchy of infinities.  Aleph0 is the cardinality of the 
>> integers.  Aleph1 is the cardinality of the power set of the integers which 
>> is the cardinality of the real numbers (that's a theorem which is easy but I 
>> don't feel like typing it on a cellphone keyboard).  Aleph2 is the 
>> cardinality of the power set of aleph1, etc.
>>
>> In my definition of 1/infinity, assume infinity means aleph0.  But I believe 
>> it works for any infinite number.  That last word is important.
> 

-- 
↙↙↙ uǝlƃ

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