That his lack of caution arises from stupidity as much as it does from malice 
shouldn't give him any relief. 

-----Original Message-----
From: Friam <[email protected]> On Behalf Of u?l? ???
Sent: Tuesday, January 19, 2021 8:03 AM
To: FriAM <[email protected]>
Subject: [FRIAM] incitement

How Trump’s language shifted in the weeks leading up to the Capitol riot – 2 
linguists explain
https://theconversation.com/how-trumps-language-shifted-in-the-weeks-leading-up-to-the-capitol-riot-2-linguists-explain-152483

There's plenty to doubt, there. But it follows along our previous conversations 
about ambiguity (both [in]formal) and binding. Personally, I don't believe 
Trump purposefully incited the riot. He'd have to be a literal genius to 
*purposefully* use language like this with the intent/objectives attributed to 
him. What does it mean, though, to *accidentally* incite a riot? Where does 
_mens rea_ fall for incitement? It seems most plausible that Trump is simply 
pre-adapted to riot-incitement by his years of practiced marketing bullsh¡t and 
the trendly positive feedback he gets from that marketing bullsh¡t. He did 
incite a *rally*. He loves when his groupies get together to fawn over him. But 
did he incite them to riot? I don't think so. Laughable as the idea is, were I 
a Senator, I'd probably vote to acquit.

--
↙↙↙ uǝlƃ

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