On Thu, Apr 26, 2007 at 03:04:39PM +0400, Eugene Chukhlomin wrote: > >#v+ > >gap> p; > >163473364580925384844313388386509085984178367003309231218111085238933310010450\ > >8151212118167511579 > >gap> q; > >190087128166482211312685157393541397547189678996851549366663853908802710380210\ > >4498957191261465571 > >gap> n := p * q; > >310741824049004372135075003588856793003734602284272754572016194882320644051808\ > >150455634682967172328678243791627283803341547107310850191954852900733772482278\ > >3525742386454014691736602477652346609 > >gap> (p * (n - q)) mod n; > >0 > >gap> > >#v- > > > >What is it supposed to proove? > > > > My gypothesis: if exists subsets(A1...An) and (B1...Bn) which satisfies > equality: A1*B1 +...An*Bn = N = p*q, then exists some of them, which > satisfies equality A1*(-B1)+...An*(-Bn)=p*q*(q-1)
But what does that proof have to do with your gypothesis? Except that p*q * (q-1) = p*q = p*q * (-1) = p*q * (N-1) = 0 (mod N) what is obvious equality. -- Stanislaw Klekot _______________________________________________ Full-Disclosure - We believe in it. Charter: http://lists.grok.org.uk/full-disclosure-charter.html Hosted and sponsored by Secunia - http://secunia.com/
