Considering the client actually payed for something, I guess it could be
argued that they payed for a product more than a service. So I would think
ownership would be theirs unless otherwise specified.
That's only my guess .. I don't know for sure.
Damnit Jim, I'm a coder not a lawyer! (hehe sorry)
Todd
----- Original Message -----
From: "Jim McCoy" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Fusebox" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Saturday, January 06, 2001 11:56 PM
Subject: Re: [OT] OwnerShip of Source Code
> I would say that unless specified in the contract, the client owns the
code.
> If the client did not expect that they owned the code, they would want to
> negotiate license fees, etc and
> protect their interest and ensure that they always had use of the code.
> It is always best to have ownership language in the contract.
>
> Jim Mc Coy
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: paul smith <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> To: Fusebox <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> Sent: Saturday, January 06, 2001 11:51 PM
> Subject: Re: [OT] OwnerShip of Source Code
>
>
> > As I understand it, typically the developer owns the work product,
> > if they did not develop it as an employee.
> >
> > best, paul
> >
> > At 10:46 AM 1/20/01 -0800, you wrote:
> > >Lets take an example where the project documentation and contractual
> > >documents were sparse and no where was there mention of ownership of
> > >code. In a case like this, who owns the code?
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