So I'm confused a bit now.
REH:
I guess what Harry and the rest would
say to this is that it is not truly a free market place.
To what does the "it" above refer? Definition of a "free market" is the deciding factor as to whether or not they can be said to exist. Pressure groups for privelege as well as for the "common good" may be freely joined in 'open societies'. Restraints can come from peer pressures as well as from power elites (whether military, economic, religious..)
But how is that different from the old fundamentalist and orthodox excuse that the nightmares being propagated in the name of religion is because it is the "wrong" religion? Or maybe a not pure enough version of that religion?
In my view, all monotheistic religions are "pure". Pure imagination! Other religions are to greater & lesser degrees connected to worldly and visible heavenly things. (ex SUN RA) I prefer the least pure if I must choose: pantheism/animism. You seem to want an explanation for human motivation, intention, action. As I read it, the theory is about systemic conditions under which wealth condenses/concentrates. Rationalizing it is a separate issue, and one that concerns social psychology & power struggles. Corruption is a normative judgement about the condensation.
How about showing me somewhere the theory has worked? In the art of economics we have whole companies, cities, nations and now the world being organized by theories that have never been proven to work anywhere near as long as the great civilizations like Egypt. Democratic Greece worked for a little over 100 years. Not too great a history if you ask me. So how does this fit with the science article?
Must read the study; we are speculating here.
I'm not picking on Steve. He was kind enough to post the article and didn't express anything but interest. There has been, however, a swing to "free markets" or is it Laissez Faire or both?
Markets are NOT FREE NOW. They are subsidized, tarrifized, monopolized, taxed... Laissez Faire I think means without government interference. I don't know history well enough to comment further, but I would doubt that Egypt or Greece qualified as free or laissez faire. Perhaps Athens was nearly so for a period??
Someone interested should check the study referenced:
I've got 2 books to read, one review to write, and an article request as well. Can't do more now.
Steve
To what does the "it" above refer? Definition of a "free market" is the deciding factor as to whether or not they can be said to exist. Pressure groups for privelege as well as for the "common good" may be freely joined in 'open societies'. Restraints can come from peer pressures as well as from power elites (whether military, economic, religious..)
But how is that different from the old fundamentalist and orthodox excuse that the nightmares being propagated in the name of religion is because it is the "wrong" religion? Or maybe a not pure enough version of that religion?
In my view, all monotheistic religions are "pure". Pure imagination! Other religions are to greater & lesser degrees connected to worldly and visible heavenly things. (ex SUN RA) I prefer the least pure if I must choose: pantheism/animism. You seem to want an explanation for human motivation, intention, action. As I read it, the theory is about systemic conditions under which wealth condenses/concentrates. Rationalizing it is a separate issue, and one that concerns social psychology & power struggles. Corruption is a normative judgement about the condensation.
How about showing me somewhere the theory has worked? In the art of economics we have whole companies, cities, nations and now the world being organized by theories that have never been proven to work anywhere near as long as the great civilizations like Egypt. Democratic Greece worked for a little over 100 years. Not too great a history if you ask me. So how does this fit with the science article?
Must read the study; we are speculating here.
I'm not picking on Steve. He was kind enough to post the article and didn't express anything but interest. There has been, however, a swing to "free markets" or is it Laissez Faire or both?
Markets are NOT FREE NOW. They are subsidized, tarrifized, monopolized, taxed... Laissez Faire I think means without government interference. I don't know history well enough to comment further, but I would doubt that Egypt or Greece qualified as free or laissez faire. Perhaps Athens was nearly so for a period??
Someone interested should check the study referenced:
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I've got 2 books to read, one review to write, and an article request as well. Can't do more now.
Steve
-- http://magma.ca/~gpco/ http://www.scientists4pr.org/ Anyone who believes exponential growth can go on forever in a finite world is either a madman or an economist.—Kenneth Boulding
