On 2007.04.17 07:39:49, you,
the extraordinary Terrence Brannon, emitted:
> I'm wondering if dyadic sentences should be considered as left operand
> being subject and right operand being object.
>
> Also, should monadic sentences be considered as left operand (ok,
> there isn't one) being an implied "you" and right operand being
> object.
I'm not sure how far the analogy can be pursued before you
reach Hofstadter-like questions ("Who is the First Lady of
England?"), but:
English: Some verbs have 2 arguments, some 1. (or: a verb
may have 2 or 1 argument uses, with closely related meanings).
APL/J: ditto.
--
English: The 2-argument verbs are called transitive, the
1-argument, intransitive.(leave aside "to be" & related verbs).
APL/J: ... dyadic ... monadic.
--
English: Transitive verbs have a subject and an object.
Intransitive verbs just have a subject.
APL/J: Dyadic verbs have a right and a left argument. Monadic
verbs just have a right argument.
-
If one kept going, one might start saying things like "In English
the subject is usually on the left, in APL/J on the right"....
One could also play with the idea that there are verbs with no
object and no real subject. Some languages, like English, make
you supply a purely formal vacuous subject, so you have to say
"It is raining". Some languages, like <I'd have to look this up>,
let you just use the verb. In the analogous case APL allowed
niladic verbs; J makes you supply a purely formal right argument,
as in
6!:0 ''
Well, probably it is Prince Philip.
6!:0 ''
--
Nollaig MacKenzie
http://www.amhuinnsuidhe.net
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