I suspect he means that with `t1 :: k1` and `t2 :: k2`, `t1 ~ t2` is permitted as long as `k1 ~ k2` accompanies it. However, this would already work with homogeneous ~, wouldn't it (because homogeneity is up to whatever constraints are in scope)?
On Mon, Nov 23, 2015 at 11:05 AM, Richard Eisenberg <[email protected]> wrote: >> Naive question: >> Would it be "evil" or otherwise complicated to assume that (~) is >> heterogeneous only in the _presence_ of kind constraint? Or only when >> the kind can be inferred? > > I'm afraid I don't understand. Do you mean that it's heterogeneous only when > -XTypeInType is specified? That just might be possible, but I don't > personally like it. Others might, though. > > Richard > > _______________________________________________ > ghc-devs mailing list > [email protected] > http://mail.haskell.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/ghc-devs _______________________________________________ ghc-devs mailing list [email protected] http://mail.haskell.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/ghc-devs
