Alan Mackenzie <[email protected]> writes, following up to Rjack:

>How can there be a contract when there's been no agreement between the
>parties involved?....

Rjack already lost this argument under a different subject heading.
Each time he loses an argument he reposts it under a new subject
heading. See the previous subject heading "Tom Tom and Microsofts Linux
patent lock-down ..".

Rjack found cases where the court used contract law to determine a
remedy for a license violation. Seeing the word "contract", he came to
the erroneous conclusion that, just because you can base a remedy on
contract law, therefore there is no difference between a license and a
contract. And therefore, you no longer need an offer an an acceptance to
form a contract.

So now, let me predict: We will soon see Rjack repost the same flawed
argument under yet another subject heading.
-- 
Rahul
http://rahul.rahul.net/
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