Since this came up in the other thread, I've got an accounting question with 
regard to treatment of retirement funds.

For tax purposes, retirement funds that receive pre-tax contributions are 
treated like tax-exempt entities, a separate taxpayer from the beneficiary, 
so that interest and realized capital gains are tax exempt. There are 
literally 990s to file, although the funds manager files them and not the 
beneficiary (unless self-directed).

If I set up books in gnucash according to tax law, if I'm accounting for an 
IRA, when RMD is known, I enter it as a liability which gets reduced with 
each distribution. I have to show both the asset transfer between the IRA 
account and checking account AND ordinary income from the distribution. If 
there is witholding from the distribution, then that reduces the tax 
liability and is not shown as an asset transfer.

Here's a situation I just encountered. Say the borrower is trying to qualify 
for a loan. Qualification rules require showing an adequate amount of 
income, regardless of assets.

If the borrower has pre-tax retirement funds, for accounting purposes, can 
can distributions be considered ordinary income, like tax law compliance?

If not, then the only income from the fund are interest within the fund 
regardless of distribution.

Is there are argument to be made that the accounting rule is the same as the 
rule for tax law compliance?
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