Comparative history and Inquisition Gilbert wrote: It's always interesting to argue history and give it different perspectives. But how does one apply that knowledge of events gone by to the current world we live in? It is often said that history repeats itself. Fundamentally, IN PRINCIPLE how does Portuguese-Inquisition rule differ from Muslim-Islamic rule? Sure there are differences in detail.
Tariq responds: The question you propose, smacks of bias. Here, we seem to be equating one of the most horrific aspects of Portuguese rule with Muslim-Islamic rule - a vast period and very general term. As if to give pretense to the fact that Muslim rule was at all times, similar to the Portuguese Inquisition - a small, albeit significant part of Portuguese rule and history..... Apples, can never be compared with Oranges! Gilbert responds: I was giving Tariq a good pass to compare 'the good and the bad' of Portuguese-Catholic Inquisition and the Muslim-Islam rule. Unfortunately he declined the invitation to discuss political rule with religion as an important aspect of government. Hope this response is not taken as bias etc. etc. Inquisition or "the most horrific aspects of Portuguese rule" is very comparable to some eras of Muslim rule. Just ask the Parses who inhabited Persia prior to Muslim Iran. Similarly ask the Christians who were the dominant population group in the Middle East, Turkey and Egypt prior to Muslim invasion. I hope Tariq dose not suggests that it was benign Muslim government's policies that caused massive shifts in religion in the local populations. However I am not so concerned about five centuries or ago as I refer to the current events. How does Tariq feel about a 'very benevolent' Muslim government in Saudi Arabia preventing women driving cars or being out of their neighborhoods without a "husband escort" or having to wear a Bhurkha or men not drinking alcohol etc. much in the name of religion? If there was an outcry form Muslims about the blasting of Buddhist monuments in Afghanistan, perhaps the world history would be different. Similarly, why do Muslims settle easily and succeed (good for them) in 'Christian-west' while it is difficult to see the same in 'Muslim countries' which soon become one homogenous religious group? An exception perhaps being Malaysia. I hope Tariq can give us an insider's view of 'the why' and 'efforts of enlightened Muslims' in changing the clamor of the masses and some government in demanding their "Muslim countries" be converted to "Islamic Republics" (as in neighboring Pakistan), comparable to what was done in Europe during the inquisition. Of course you can duck the issue.:=)) Regards, Gilbert ########################################################################## # Send submissions for Goanet to [EMAIL PROTECTED] # # PLEASE remember to stay on-topic (related to Goa), and avoid top-posts # # More details on Goanet at http://joingoanet.shorturl.com/ # # Please keep your discussion/tone polite, to reflect respect to others # ##########################################################################
