------------------------------------------------------------------------
**** http://www.GOANET.org ****
------------------------------------------------------------------------
This month's Goanet operations sponsored by Mrs. Daisy Faleiro
If you would like to sponsor Goanet's operations contact:
Herman Carneiro - [EMAIL PROTECTED]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
1: George Pinto wrote: In my interaction with Goan expats in the last 5
years, I have been surprized that a majority believe Goa should be separate
from India (at least in the Catholic community).
2: jc noted: I definitely could not have been one of the individuals in
your (George Pinto's) poll; Paulo neither. And from what I know, both Paulo
and I are practising Catholics. I absolutely and utterly do NOT believe that
Goa should be separate from India. It is my impression that Paulo too
believes likewise.
3: Paulo Colaco Dias writes: You (JC) are right only because I think it is
too late for Goa to be independent.
=========== jc's response:
Dear Paulo,
I trust that you noted the following points in the George Pinto post
a: interaction with Goan expats in the last 5 years (not ......the last 25
or 35 or ~ 45 years but ......5 years)
b: Catholics (not...... Goans but ......Catholic Goans)
c: believe (as is prevalent..... now ...or atleast within the past 5 years)
d: should be (not ...... should have been)
BTW: I hope China will not read the Correia/Rubinoff 'homogenicity' comment.
There are lots of border areas which are homogenous with China - esp as
China has never recognised the ( British i.e. Colonial/Imperialist) General
McMahon 1914 line of demarcation.
We both have noted the naiveity of that Correia/Rubinoff 'homogenicity'
argument vis a vis (say) Bangladesh and Nepal.
And if "India" (using the Correia/Rubinoff 'homogenicity' argument) can
claim title for Goa, would that give third party proprietary interests in
Goa (under Indian/Common law) to other members of "India" i.e. Pakistan,
Bangladesh, Nepal, Burma and possibly Afghanistan?
Or was the 'proprietary interest in Goa' expressly or impliedly excluded in
the 1947/1971 Partition/Bangladesh creation agreements ?
just curious (the Andamans notwithstanding)
jc
as Vidhyaghar notes : Question everything ...especially statements put out
by politicians and by those who purport to put politicians on a pedestal -
many with Goveian blindness, deafness and stubborness.
