On Sat, Nov 24, 2018 at 4:02 PM Ugorji Nwoke <ugo...@gmail.com> wrote:

> I understand the rules from the context of the language and what the
compiler will accept - conversion MUST be explicit. I am asking if there is
any runtime cost to the conversion between int and uint,
> given that they "should" have the same representation, or if it is free.
I can see how there is a cost for float64 <-> float32, or for float64 <->
int, but is there a cost for the specific case of int <-> uint?

'floatxx' <-> 'floatyy' <-> 'intzz' is obviously non free.

But what possible run-time cost in conversion between 'uint' and 'int' -
considering it's always valid and the bit representations have the same
shape, size, organization and modulo the sign bit also interpretation - can
you think of?



-- 

-j

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