The Preamble betrayed
Chandrabhan Prasad
http://dailypioneer.com/columnist1.asp?main_variable=Columnist&file_name=prasad%2Fprasad192%2Etxt&writer=prasad

 Whose interest does the judiciary serve when faced with a clash between the
spirit of the Constitution and the interest of traditional society?

For argument's sake, let's just ask one new question to revive an old
debate: Has any member of the judiciary read the spirit to the Constitution?
In other words, has any member of the judiciary ever read the Preamble of
the Constitution, truthfully? A Preamble sets a book's agenda. The whole
body of the book, therefore, must primarily address the concerns
articulated, albeit in nugget form, by the Preamble.

 Ergo: The entire Indian Constitution must be focused on the issues
encapsulated in the opening paragraph. What does the Preamble aspire for? It
is filled with terms such as "Justice - Social, economic, political, and
equality". Creating a *just* social order for India, thus, becomes the prime
objective of the India as a *nation state*.

 What is the prime mandate for the higher judiciary, the Supreme Court to be
precise? To primarily protect the Constitution, and, implicitly, the
interests of the Republic? Or, is it to serve the *justice
deficient*interests of traditional Indian society?

 When the Constitution - duly approved by the Constituent Assembly which
enterprisingly claimed and owned up the legacy of the freedom movement -
talks of *justice*, we must figure out the sources of *injustice*. Are the
sources of *injustice* rooted out in the Republic, or traditional society?

 The answer is simple: The Constitution is asking the Republic to correct
traditional society. Traditional society, therefore, in the mind of the
Constitution is the fountainhead of *injustice*.

 Where does the judiciary stand between the Constitution and traditional
society - a society structured along caste lines, with devious designs of
castes and the outcastes? Take, for example, land reforms,
*zamindari*abolition to be precise. Do the learned judges know of the
medievalism of
the *zamindar*s? Wasn't it necessary to abolish *zamindari* to reclaim the
dignity of the largest section of India's population immediately after
Independence?

 This forms the crust of the question: Why, after all, did the laws relating
to *land reform*s became the first set of laws to be inserted in the now
controversial Ninth Schedule?

 Relocating the Ninth Schedule in perspective, the ex-*zamindar*s, while
fighting *zamindari* abolition, were using the judiciary to subvert land
reforms - one of the noblest tasks initiated by the Jawaharlal Nehru
Government. Under the *zamindari* system, the peasants were treated as
sub-humans. Millions of hectares of land got trapped in litigations. In
fact, in the Bihar, Karnataka and Orissa, not one centimetre land was found
as surplus during the first phase of the passing of Land Ceiling Acts.

 With whom was the judiciary during land reforms? Did it stand with the
Republic, or with the traditional feudal society? Didn't the judges know
what *zamindari* meant to the average citizens? Weren't their lordships
aware of where the interests of the Indian Republic lay? Had they not read
the Preamble of the very Constitution they were supposed to uphold?

 It is in this background that the Ninth Schedule should be understood.

 In the popular Dalit perception, the Indian Judiciary doesn't deliver *
justice*. It is no exaggeration to say that the judiciary often *retard*s
the course of justice.

 The judiciary sometimes takes *suo motu* cognisance of media reports
highlighting glaring issues. Has the judiciary ever taken note of Dalit
issues on the basis of media reports? For instances, when the legendary
journalist in his ground-breaking research article, "In search of a Dalit
journalist", published in this newspaper on November 16, 1996, showed that
there isn't a Dalit journalist in Delhi's mainstream media establishments,
did the Supreme Court call for any explanation from the editors? How can it
be possible that a population base equal to the combined population of the
UK, France and Italy can't produce a single Dalit journalist?

 Is it in the interest of the Constitution to keep Dalits excluded from
India's public institutions? Reservations in Government jobs and education
have been the only liberating tool yet. Because of reservations, there is a
visible Dalit middle class. Has the judiciary ever been kind to this
spectacular public policy for Dalits? Often, Dalits are denied justice from
academic institutions. How can institutions like JNU and Delhi University
award doctorates to Dalits, and refuse appointment on the ground of "merit"?
Has the judiciary ever taken a *suo motu* cognisance of such news items?
Recently, it was reported that not even one of Delhi's 80-plus degree
colleges has a Dalit as principal. Did the judiciary take any note of it?

 Along with this Ninth Schedule debate, we must open up a new one. Whose
interest does the judiciary serve when faced with a clash between the spirit
of the Constitution and the interest of traditional Indian society?

 As a matter of fact, the Government would always want to sideline the
judiciary by bringing a host of subjects under the Ninth Schedule. This is
an unhealthy trend, and the judiciary has every right to protect its own
rights. But while doing so, the judiciary should not punish the *social
underclass*. It should make a distinction between issues, social and
political.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
"Ours is a battle not for wealth or for power.
It is a battle for freedom. It is a battle for the reclamation of human
personality."
- Dr BR Ambedkar
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