Hello, I have a student who is researching Jewish power and privilege pre 1929. He is asking the question: How have Jews justified superiority to "inferior" classes or races pre 1929? I know this is a broad question! If anyone can direct me to specific research that might narrow this topic or address this question, I would be very appreciative.
Shabbat shalom, Robin Gluck -- [image: SignatureLogo] *Robin Gluck **Librarian* Jewish Community High School of the Bay 1835 Ellis Street, San Francisco, CA 94115 www.jchsofthebay.org | [email protected] *Empowering Individuals | Enriching Community | Embracing Pluralism*
__ Messages and opinions expressed on Hasafran are those of the individual author and are not necessarily endorsed by the Association of Jewish Libraries (AJL) ================================== Submissions for Ha-Safran, send to: [email protected] To join Ha-Safran, update or change your subscription, etc. - click here: https://lists.service.ohio-state.edu/mailman/listinfo/hasafran Questions, problems, complaints, compliments send to: [email protected] Ha-Safran Archives: Current: http://www.mail-archive.com/hasafran%40lists.service.ohio-state.edu/maillist.html Earlier Listserver: http://www.mail-archive.com/hasafran%40lists.acs.ohio-state.edu/maillist.html AJL HomePage http://www.JewishLibraries.org -- Hasafran mailing list [email protected] https://lists.osu.edu/mailman/listinfo/hasafran
