------- Forwarded message ------- From: "David Tolpin" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> To: "Sebastian Sylvan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Cc: "David House" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, haskell-cafe@haskell.org Subject: Re: Re[2]: [Haskell-cafe] Why do I have to specify (Monad m) here again? Date: Sun, 18 Feb 2007 23:38:59 +0400
>> Why the compiler cannot infer class constraint on m from class definition >> in instance definition while it can in function type definition? > > But it can't! If you give a type to a function, it will assume zero > class constraints unless you specify them (just like it will when you > give a type to an instance declaration). If you do something like: > Hi Sebastian, it is not the example I brought. In the example I brought I showed how in function type declaration assertion that an instance of a class is also an instance of the other class is used. Take a look at my example. According to what part of the type system logic type inference in instances is not implemented? David _______________________________________________ Haskell-Cafe mailing list Haskell-Cafe@haskell.org http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
