On 22/12/2010 14:48, Artyom Shalkhakov wrote: > ..Do you want to prove a property of > a function formally, using some kind of formal logic?
I am aware that functional languages do not do proofs at term level, but the motivation for my question is to get a precise reason why this is so. The replies from the café have clearly articulated the reasons. Thanks to all, Pat This message has been scanned for content and viruses by the DIT Information Services E-Mail Scanning Service, and is believed to be clean. http://www.dit.ie _______________________________________________ Haskell-Cafe mailing list [email protected] http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
