Marcin 'Qrczak' Kowalczyk wrote:

> 1. Is there any difference between
>     \a b -> (a, b)
> and
>     let f a b = (a, b) in f
> ?

No

>
>
> 2. Is there any difference between
>     case x of (a, b) -> (b, a)
> and
>     let (a, b) = x in (b, a)
> ?

Yes, if x is bottom.

    -- Lennart




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