Re: Changing <- to :=

[Thimble Smith]

On Fri, Apr 28, 2000 at 07:08:22PM -0700, Mike Jones wrote:
> Is there a way to define (:=) to be (<-) in the context of a do?

> The goal is to make the language look Pascal like for those who will use it.

I'd say that goal is ill-concieved.  If you are trying to help
people learn functional programming, then this will only confuse
them.  <- in Haskell does not work the same as := in Pascal.  It
is not assignment in the Pascal sense, and it's no good to make
people think that it is.

Tim