On Thu, Jun 21, 2007 at 06:13:22PM +0200, Peter Padawitz wrote: > Is f(~p(x))=e(x) semantically equivalent to: f(z)=e(x) where p(x)=z?
Yes. PS: I saw that twice Stefan _______________________________________________ Haskell mailing list [email protected] http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell
