Hello,
When I readrealTheory, I see theREAL_INV_0theorem. Its content isinv 0 = 0,
according to my understanding, it means that the reciprocal ofreal_0 isreal_0.
But it is contradictory to the knowledge of maths. The definition ofinv
inrealaxTheory. How to understandinv 0 = 0? I want to know the advantages of
such a definition.
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