Hi Michael,

>[...]
>Use standard principle that allows constants to be
>"defined" once existence is proved to give yourself the
>choice operator.
>
>Now, if you believe in the way HOL Light implements that
>last definitional principle, you'll object that this uses
>the choice operator.

:-)  Yes, exactly.  In HOL Light you don't have that
"standard principle" in the kernel, and when I think "HOL",
I always think of HOL Light which is the only HOL system
I know a bit.

>But that's just a convenience for John's implementation.

No.  If he hadn't implemented things this way, I would have
objected to this "definitional principle" for exactly the
same "I want my closed terms to unambiguously point into
the Platonist universe" reasons too.

(By the way, in Mizar you only get that "standard principle"
if you have proved _unique_ existence.  And _then_ of course
I don't have any problems with it anymore.)

Another by the way: there's something like a choice operator
hidden in the type definitions of HOL Light as well.
It's the reason that the part of the system that the source
claims is intuitionistic, actually isn't.  But with that I
don't have Platonistic problems, because I can "fix" what
the "abs" functions might be.  It still will be a choice
that you won't be able to prove in the logic, but at least
it will be specific.

To say it still differently: Goedel told how to show that a
theory is incomplete.  But with epsilon and your definitional
principle it becomes _obvious_ that the theory is incomplete.
I would prefer the theory to be "as complete as possible",
and to really need the Goedel theorem to get incompleteness.

>In reality we know that it's OK to use such things as
>constants because their use could be eliminated through
>the CHOOSE principle.

But that's a different matter!  Then you're local to a proof,
and not writing closed terms.

I've had this discussion many times with Josef Urban as
well, and he also kept giving me this argument :-)  But
somehow I don't think it fully cuts it.

If you don't have the choice operator (and/or its
definitional principle equivalent), I think that you cannot
define a constant in HOL for which you can prove that it
denotes a free ultrafilter.  _With_ these things it's easy to
define such a constant, but without you can certainly _prove_
that free ultrafilters exist (well, if you have AC), but you
cannot _define_ one.  You cannot _point_ at one.  (This is
the main reason I like free ultrafilters so much :-))

So, yes, as you say "it's OK", but I still think there's
a difference.

I've had this discussion with John Harrison as well.  He then
pointed out a book about the "epsilon calculus" in which
it is proved that any statement that you can prove using
the epsilon operator but that doesn't itself contain it,
you also can prove without.  (That was about first order
logic though, I think.)  So maybe that's what you mean?
Still it doesn't take away my feeling of unease.

Josef and John (and you :-)) probably all think I'm just
being difficult...  Ah well, so be it.

Freek

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