> -----Original Message-----
> From: IBM Mainframe Discussion List On Behalf Of Gary Green
>
> If I recall correctly, the COND= on steps in a called PROC
> will take on the COND= value of the COND statement on the
> EXEC card. In your case,
> COND=(1,LT) will replace all of the COND=(0,LT) that exist in
> the PROC in the PROCLIB.
>
> Does this make sense?
Sure, but if the first procstep completes with, say, RC=4, why aren't the
remaining procsteps bypassed?
-jc-
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