In a message dated 6/27/2006 5:02:06 A.M. Central Daylight Time,  
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

>The concordance is Matthew 27: 46. Fortunately, William Tyndale,  probably
>the author, understood the need to cater for monoglots and so,  having quoted
>the Hebrew (or Aramaic?)
I believe you meant "context" and not "concordance".  And Tyndale  was not 
the author of the verse.  I don't know who wrote it, as there is  no verse in 
all of Matthew stating that Matthew wrote it, but the real author  lived about 
1200 years before Tyndale and wrote it all in Greek.   According to the version 
on _http://www-users.cs.york.ac.uk/~fisher/gnt/_ 
(http://www-users.cs.york.ac.uk/~fisher/gnt/)  the  original Greek has a 
transliteration of the Aramaic 
phrase using the  Greek alphabet (Eli eli lama sabachthani), then added the 
Greek translation  (thee mou, thee mou, inati me egkatelipes) for the 
Grecophonic 
monoglots of  the third century C.E.  Whoever translated it into English (and  
Tyndale was just one of many who did that) translated the whole sentence and  
did not add the English translation of the Aramaic.  Aramaic and not  Hebrew 
was the language commonly used by the uneducated masses in first  century C.E. 
Palestine, although Aramaic and Hebrew are very similar.
 
Bill  Fairchild




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