On 6 September 2016 at 16:54, Kirk Wolf <[email protected]> wrote:
> It seems to me that "JVM translations of programs" refers to the
> translation that the JVM does from Java byte code to machine instructions,
> whether it be the JVM JIT or the JVM interpreter.   The part "provided all
> of such translation is solely controlled by the JVM" tips it off, since the
> JVM doesn't do translation from the "Java programming language" to byte
> codes (that is done by a Java compiler, which is completely separate from
> the JVM - you don't even need to use IBM's Java compiler).

I think you and Ed are correct. But then there is really no clear
definition in the IBM document. Which I think supports my theory that
IBM intentionally worded this vaguely so that they can interpret it as
they please if the situation arises that they want to prevent some
cunning usage that they didn't anticipate.

Seriously - there are COBOL compilers that produce JVM bytecodes, but
I believe none of commercial acceptability. If there were, would IBM
be happy to let that COBOL run on zxxP engines? I have my doubts...

Tony H.

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