I'm hoping someone more informed can either help me or point me in the right direction.
I'm getting into an email battle with another email administrator who has his SMTP system configured to first look at the "A" record for our domain before looking for an MX record.
His mail server is attempting to send email to our "A" name record, which belongs to the hosting company. His stance is, if the connection fails for the "A" record he then searches for a MX record.
I was under the impression to maintain compliance with RFC 822, 974 and 1123, the sender's SMTP server would have to query for an MX record first, not the "A" record.
He is definitely, positively, 100% WRONG.
I would not be too concerned, though -- most of his mail will not be delivered.
There is one reference in the RFCs to sending mail to the A record -- and it makes it clear that that should *only* be done if there is no MX record.
What surprises me, though, is that someone could have their mailserver set up in such a way (unless they wrote their own mailserver). I'm sure there are no mailservers out there that intentionally go to the A before even looking at the MX.
-Scott
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