Dear Amy,

What type of correlation do you mean? If it is an R of R^2 from a regression 
model, the fisher transformation is no longer applicable, as these outcomes lie 
between 0 and 1 (`real' correlations lie between -1 and 1). In addition, why 
use an ln tranformation? It does only bring your R to a distribution which is 
also suffering from truncated scale (-inf to 0). To obtain standard errors of 
the multiple correlations, Wishart?s (1931) approximation
of the variance of multiple R^2 may be used (also, see, Olkin & Finn,
1995, p. 161). Since squared multiple correlations can only be positive,
the hypothesis of these parameters being equal to 0, should be tested against a
one-sided alternative.

Hope this helps


Niels Smits


-----Oorspronkelijk bericht-----
Van: [email protected] namens A Rangel
Verzonden: vr 18-1-2008 5:58
Aan: [email protected]
Onderwerp: [Impute] conundrum combining pearson r and r-squared
 
Hello all,

I am hoping to get some expert opinions on a
relatively simple problem.  Suppose that you want to
combine Pearson r and r-squared values from 20 imputed
data sets.  It seems that standard advice (in small to
moderate samples) is to first transform r using
Fisher's (1915) r-to-z transformation.  Similarly,
ln(r-squared) seems to be an appropriate
transformation.

After combining and back-transforming, it is quite
possible -- perhaps likely -- that you get
inconsistent estimates.  What I mean by that is that
squaring the combined Pearson r value can be quite
different from the combined R-square value that you
get from back-transforming ln(R-sq).

The fact that these two estimates does not surprise
me.  However, I'm looking for some practical advice on
how to deal with this.  How might you explain the
discrepancy in a manuscript, for example?  Is there a
better way to deal with this (e.g., report the
combined r value and square it to get a value of
r-squared rather than combine the r-squared values
separately).

Any opinions on this would be much appreciated.

Amy Rangel


      
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