On Wed, Nov 20, 2024 at 09:23 Kamil Tekiela wrote: > Do you know why the two exist? Was there any historical reason for this? > > From what cmb69 said[1], it seems like it may exist because of the > implicit semicolon in ?>, and after I tested it, it seems to be true. > Was there ever any other reason?
Hi Kamil, I hope no one writes code like that where separate <?php ?> tags are interleaved around each switch, case, break, and endswitch statement. That's atrocious... Per the previous discussion that Claude linked to, the alternate syntax is a leftover from PHP/FI 2, where nearly all lines including if conditions and case statements were terminated by a semicolon. [2] [1]: https://github.com/php/php-src/issues/15258#issuecomment-2271809889 [2]: https://externals.io/message/109350#109363
