This is kind of "host/router requirement" question...
IPv6 base specification allows (does not prohibit) use of unspecified
IPv6 address in source address. The question we have is, how
legitimate it is to use unspecified IPv6 address in source address.
The only use we have in our document is:
- neighbor solicitation with unspecified IPv6 source, for DAD
Please consider the following examples. Are these examples legal?
- IPv6 ICMPv6 packet with unspecified source address, which is DAD.
(this one should be legal, since it is documented in RFC2462)
- IPv6 ICMPv6 packet with unspecified source address, which is NOT DAD.
- IPv6 TCP packet with unspecified source address.
this form of packet can be used to make a DoS attack. careless
implementation may create TCP control block with local
address = mine, and foreign address = unspecified, in state SYN_RCVD.
this may disable wildcard listening TCP socket from being contacted
- IPv6 UDP packet with unspecified source address.
- other upper layer protocol with unspecified source address.
- mobile-ip6 home address option with unspecified address.
- a router which forwards packets with unspecified source address.
if we consider that DAD is the only legal use, we should not forward.
itojun
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