On Tue, Feb 20, 2001 at 03:48:37PM +0530, Niveda Monyvannan wrote:
> Should configured tunnel always be a duplex one?
Are you talking about tunneling IPv6 over IPv4? I don't think you
need to have a duplex tunnel. Try considering the tunnel "interface"
to be transmit only, i.e. half duplex. The tunneling RFCs (2893 and
2473) treat tunneling as an encapsulation mechanism and decapsulation
is just "normal" protocol operation. So I would say, no, you don't
need to have a full duplex tunnel.
> A-------------B========C--------------------D
>
> Let us say B is configured to encaptulate v6 packet to C. Should C have
> a configured tunnel interface towards B to receive a encaptulated
> packets from B?
No, I don't think so.
> take a look at the following scenario u still have reachability from D
> to A.
> A D F
> | | |
> B======>======C======>=====E
>
> and THERE IS A CONFIGURED TUNNEL HALF-DUPLEX ONE, FROM E TO B. This way
> packets from D can reach A right ?
Okay, that's a good ROUTING setup. Routing can always be assymmetric,
so this works fine.
One thing this made me wonder about, though. Let's say we have your
ABCD scenario above:
A-------------B========C--------------------D
C is a router. All nodes have IPv6 addresses, call them A6, B6, C6,
and D6. B and C have IPv4 addresses, B4 and C4. Is it "legal" to
configure a tunnel from B to D by using B4 as the local IPv4 address
and C4 as the remote address, and configuring the local IPv6 address
as B6 and the remote IPv6 address as D6? Packets to D would get
encapsulated at B in an IPv4 packet with B4 as source and C4 as
destination. When the packet reached C, it would be decapsulated.
Since C is a router, it would forward the packet on to D. Is this
allowed? It's confusing, but I don't see why it wouldn't work.
--
Dave Marquardt
Sun Microsystems, Inc.
+1 512 401-1077
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