In looking at the IPv6 RFCs, I don't see any mention that an IPv4-mapped
address should not be sent as source or destination address in an IPv6
header, except in conjunction with IPv4-translatable addresses (from
SIIT). Is this statment true? If so, is it documented in one of the RFCs
that I may have missed?
Thanks
Lori Napoli
z/OS Communications Server Development - TCP/IP Stack
919-254-6146 T/L 8-444-6146
E-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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