Dear IPv6 experts,
what is your experience with a situation such as this:
* IPv4-only client in IPv4-only subnet running a web browser
* this client accesses the Internet via a local HTTP proxy, connects
to it via IPv4 (of course)
* the Proxy is dual-stack "on the outside", i.e. can talk v4 and v6
towards the Internet
What happens if the user on the client tries to open a web site with a literal
IPv6 address in the URI?
Will the URI still get passed to the http proxy "as is" as it would happen with
URIs that contain a host name?
Or can/will the client's browser get into trouble in this situation (seeing an
IPv6 address, but not having IPv6 itself)?
Thanks for enlightenment
Carsten
