>>>>> On Thu, 21 Sep 2006 14:16:30 +0000,
>>>>> "Su Thunder" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> said:
> For example,the IP address of one end(Router A) of the PPP link is
> 1000::1/64,the one of the other end(Router B) is 1000::2/64.Suppose packet
> with a destination IP address of 1000::3/64 is sent from Router A to Router
> B.On Router B,the packet's destination IP address matches 1000::/64,then
> the packet is sent back to Router A through the interface from which it was
> received,at the mean time,an ICMP Redirect message is sent to Router A.Then
> on Router A,for the same reason,the packet is sent back to Router B with an
> ICMP Redirect message being sent to Router B.The process continues until
> the packet's Hop Limit value is decremented to zero.
> The way to solve the problem.
> If the destination IP address of a packet matches an on-link prefix of a
> PPP link,and the destination IP address is not the IP address of the other
> end of the PPP link,then the packet must be discarded by the PPP
> link-layer.
> Or the problem is already specified in draft-ietf-ipv6-over-ppp-v2-02.txt
> or any other RFC,and I ignore it?
See the following part of RFC4443:
One specific case in which a Destination Unreachable message is sent
with a code 3 is in response to a packet received by a router from a
point-to-point link, destined to an address within a subnet assigned
to that same link (other than one of the receiving router's own
addresses). In such a case, the packet MUST NOT be forwarded back
onto the arrival link.
(Section 3.1)
It should also be noted that the redirect message in your example
would not be sent (regardless of the existence of RFC4443) unless the
packet was originated at Router A.
JINMEI, Tatuya
Communication Platform Lab.
Corporate R&D Center, Toshiba Corp.
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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