Is there defined behavior for a hot re-deploying a jar which happens to replace an
instance of a bean that is involved in a transaction? Does that question make sense?
To rephrase, if I fix a bug in a stateful session bean and I redeploy the application
containing that session bean, do I have to be concerned about trying to time my
redeploy so that no clients are making calls to an instance of the bean?
- jeremiah
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