"vickyk" wrote : "gsniderJBoss" wrote : If a stateless EJB gets a 
JBossWorkManager (see code below) without going through an RA, should 
everything still work?
  |   | 
  | I am not able to understand why you are using the workmanager through the 
EJB , it should be used by the RA .
  | It does not make any sense to me using the workmanager through the EJB .

What he is doing will work (assuming he's not breaking other ejb rules), 
but it's not very portable. :-)


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