On 12/29/05, Norman Rasmussen <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > Version=1.0 only requires the server to support features (rfc 3920, > section 4.6), it does not require the server to support tls or sasl. > My guess that is that if the both servers support TLS (via features) > then do TLS. > > Just because you have TLS doesn't mean you don't have to dialback. > The only time you SHOULD not do dialback is when you've authenticated > via SASL. (rfc 3920, section 8.1)
<snip/> Does this mean that version 1.0 compliant servers can get away with not supporting TLS+SASL? I thought that was the whole point of specifying version=1.0, since dialback is present in the RFC just for legacy compliance. Regards, Vinod.
