Understand. But my issue is a bit different which i think i could not
make it clear. I have a js file associated with every aspx page. Now
my code is like
<input type="text" id="myid" onclick="javascript:sayHello(<%=
myValueFromServer%>);" />
I tried to use the code (which is in my .js file) as:
<script type="text/javascript">
$(function() { //document.ready
$("#myid").click(function() {
alert( "Hello " + <%= myValueFromServer%> );
}
});
But in .js file it does not resolve the <%%> value. Any help would be
appreciated.
On Sep 26, 2:13 pm, "Richard D. Worth" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> The same with jQuery looks like this:
>
> <input type="text" id="myid" value="World" />
> <script type="text/javascript">
> $(function() { //document.ready
>
> $("#myid").click(function() {
> alert( "Hello " + $(this).val() );
> }
>
> });
>
> </script>
>
> You don't have to pass anything to the function since the 'this' context
> variable is equal to the element to which the event was bound. If you want
> to pass some other value to the function, there are a couple of ways to do
> that, but which one to pick would really depend on the what/why. In other
> words, it's hard to say without a more real scenario.
>
> - Richard
>
> Richard D. Worthhttp://rdworth.org/
>
> On Thu, Sep 25, 2008 at 11:22 PM, JQueryProgrammer <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>wrote:
>
>
>
> > 1. I have some simple queries with regards to function calling. In
> > plain javascript if I want to call a javascript function from my HTMl
> > tag i do it like:
> > <input type="text" id="myid" onclick="javascript:sayHello(this.id);"
> > value="World" />
> > Now my javascript function would be defined as
> > function sayHello(id) {
> > alert("Hello " + id.value);
> > }
>
> > Now I want to use JQuery to do such kind of programming wherein some
> > value (not necessary something from the attribute) is passed t o the
> > function and processing is done. Can anyone please guide me as to how
> > can it be acomplished.
