Hi ! Let me first thank all who responded. Let me also give some technical details, which I forgot last times. I am running JavaWebServer 2.0, which uses Servlet API 2.1 and JSP 1.0 on windoze NT 4.0. I develop my java code in VisualCafe 3.0.c Now to the main point of this email : Larry Tate wrote: Regarding Point #2, why doesn't the <%=...%> in the jsp:useBean work. why should it work? Isn't the point to compile once, the first time, and not again during running? It might compile the code the first time with the substitution, but thereafter it will use the same precompiled value, which is certainly what you do not want. Well, I guess this makes sense. Let me than ask the question more generally : To use a bean in a JSP, I have to declare/import it with the <jsp:useBean> tag. This means that the JSP and bean are tied to one another. What I would like to is design a JSP which works with different beans, but all having certain properties in common, so that the same JSP i.e. the same <jsp:getProperty> tags work, irrespective of which bean is sent to the JSP. So, the idea was to send the name of the bean to the beanName attribute of the <jsp:useBean> tag. Is what I just explained clear enough ? Is it feasable and if so, how ? Thanx, Martin. =========================================================================== To unsubscribe: mailto [EMAIL PROTECTED] with body: "signoff JSP-INTEREST". FAQs on JSP can be found at: http://java.sun.com/products/jsp/faq.html http://www.esperanto.org.nz/jsp/jspfaq.html
