Hi all,
I'm currently in the process of migrating the configuration of a 6509 to an MX
and I've got a question or two. I have a customer in one of our metro rings to
which we provide a Q-in-Q tunnel. The A-side is a Q-in-Q port on a switch that
is directly connected to a 6509 'switchport mode trunk' port. The Z-side is a
direct fast ethernet Q-in-Q port to our 6509. Very simple. My question comes
in the form of whether it's possible to do this on the MX using a port-based
VLAN. Will the following configuration work?
ge-0/0/5 {
flexible-vlan-tagging;
encapsulation flexible-ethernet-services;
unit 0 {
description "Customer A Q-in-Q VLAN";
encapsulation vlan-bridge;
family bridge {
interface-mode trunk;
vlan-id-list 130;
}
}
unit 32 {
description Sw1-R11:Gi0/16;
vlan-id 32;
family inet {
address 192.168.20.11/30;
}
}
}
bridge-domains {
cid-A {
description "P2P Q-in-Q for Customer A";
domain-type bridge;
vlan-id 130;
}
}
The customer will be plugged directly into a downstream EX3200 via a Q-in-Q
port. Is this valid? Are there any options within the bridge-domain VLAN
config that need to be set properly? Am I overly complicating matters? Could
I ask anymore questions in a single paragraph?
My overall intent is to not have to create the VLAN 32 in my bridge domain.
There is really no technical reason why it can't be done - it's just more about
consistency in how all ports are configured.
Thanks,
evt
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