On Mon, Jun 11, 2018 at 7:47 PM, bing zhu <[email protected]> wrote:
> Dear Sir/Ma'am > How can i map a kernel virtual address to a user process's same virtual > address ?is it possible ? > thank you for your time > best wishes! > > Dear Bing Just to clarify, what do you mean by "user process' same virtual address"? > _______________________________________________ > Kernelnewbies mailing list > [email protected] > https://lists.kernelnewbies.org/mailman/listinfo/kernelnewbies > > -- regards, Mulyadi Santosa Freelance Linux trainer and consultant blog: the-hydra.blogspot.com training: mulyaditraining.blogspot.com <https://www.avast.com/sig-email?utm_medium=email&utm_source=link&utm_campaign=sig-email&utm_content=webmail> Virus-free. www.avast.com <https://www.avast.com/sig-email?utm_medium=email&utm_source=link&utm_campaign=sig-email&utm_content=webmail> <#DAB4FAD8-2DD7-40BB-A1B8-4E2AA1F9FDF2>
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