On 10/26/07, Stewart Stremler <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> begin  quoting Christopher Smith as of Thu, Oct 25, 2007 at 10:26:45PM -0700:
> > Stewart Stremler wrote:
> [snip]
> > > I don't know if there's a lightbulb-moment or not.  I think they're
> > > pretty simple -- the hard stuff is in the proofs and the transforms.
> > >
> > And the nice thing about a functional language (or at least *some*
> > functional languages), is that the language does that "hard stuff" for
> > you.
>
> I completely fail to see how *any* programming language could prove
> that an NDFA and a DFA are equivalent.  Or show why a transforms is
> guaranteed to work.

In the PlanetMath article on NDFAs the following claim is made.

<claim>
Any regular grammar can be represented by an NDFA. Any string accepted
by the NDFA is in the language represented by that NDFA. Furthermore,
it is a straight-forward process to generate an NDFA for any regular
grammar. Actual operation of an NDFA is generally intractable, but
there is a simple process to transform any NDFA into a DFA, the
operation of which is very tractable. Regular expression matchers tend
to operate in this manner.
</claim>
http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/NonDeterministicFiniteAutomaton.html

So I would suggest that the problem can at least be reduced to
proving that two DFAs are equivalent.

BobLQ

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