On Dec 5, 2007 8:13 PM, Legatus <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > On 12/5/07, Chuck Esterbrook <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: ... > > I have this mental grouping: > > * FOSS > > * PD, freeware > > * shareware > > > > Is there a difference between a codebase that is "public domain" vs. a > > codebase that is "freeware"? > > > > The copyright holder relinquishes their copyright to with public domain > software. They may just release the binary files or the source to the > public domain. Freeware is given away, but the copyright holder does not > relinquish their rights to the copyright.
I think that implies that: (1) I can incorporate a public domain codebase into my own code, regardless of my intent (FOSS, commercial, etc.) with no required preconditions (ex: get permission) or postconditions (ex: include a notice somewhere) (2) If I want to do the same with freeware, I must obtain permission and terms from the author. If I'm wrong or missing anything feel free to speak up. -Chuck -- [email protected] http://www.kernel-panic.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/kplug-lpsg
