DocCec <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
In a message dated 98-03-27 21:09:32 EST, you write:
<< Now, would a law that said there are rights
and protections for a conceived child be Kantian or neo-Kantian?
(Perhaps neither, of course). >>
I don't think laws can be either one. It's a jump from a philosophical system
to law, and insofar as I know Kant himself never made that jump. If such a
law were based on the personhood of a fetus it couldn't be in line with Kant's
philosophy, though you could base it on Rawls.
Doc
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