* Tobias Pfeiffer <tgpfeif...@web.de> [2022-09-01 21:28]:
> > >   2005/08/01 Stock sale
> > >     Assets:Broker                    -50 AAPL {$30.00} @ $50.00
> > >     Expenses:Broker:Commissions        $19.95
> > >     Income:Capital Gains           $-1,000.00
> > >     Assets:Broker                   $2,480.05

> I think I kind of understand your explanation, but I have trouble
> understanding on a technical level how that transaction balances.
> When you write "you *also* have a capital gain of $20 per share", can I
...

Let me try to explain it the way I see it.

Assets:Broker contains 50 AAPL {$30.00}.  We agree on that.  This is
$1500.  Now we can argue what it's really worth right now because the
value of AAPL goes up and down but we know that Assets:Broker contains
50 AAPL with a *book value* of $30 each and that's a total of $1500.
You can verify this with "bal Assets:Broker -B"

So now when you do:

    Assets:Broker                    -50 AAPL {$30.00} @ $50.00

{$30.00} is the cost.  @ $50.00 is the price.  You're selling
something with a cost of $30.00 (the book value) for a price of $50.

So you're basically saying: hey, this APPL I own with a total book
value of $1500... you know what, I'm selling it for $2500

So Assets:Broker goes down by $1500 (remember, the book value!) and
you get $2500 (what you sold it for).  That doesn't quite balance,
does it?  So where does the difference come from?  You made a gain.

So basically we have:

  Assets:Broker  -$1500 of APPL [book value]
  Assets:Broker   $2500 of cash
  Income:Capital gains   -$1000 (the balancing figure)

> imagine that this lot notation means that there is an implicit "hidden
> posting"
>   Assets:Broker     (($50 - $30) * 50)
> that is used to balance the "Income:Capital Gains" posting?

I don't think that's correct.  Like I showed, Assets:Broker is just
$1500 (the book value).

At least this is how I understand it.  Maybe I'm wrong, but my
explanation appears to make sense. ;)

-- 
Martin Michlmayr
https://www.cyrius.com/

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