* Tobias Pfeiffer <[email protected]> [2022-09-01 21:28]:
> > > 2005/08/01 Stock sale
> > > Assets:Broker -50 AAPL {$30.00} @ $50.00
> > > Expenses:Broker:Commissions $19.95
> > > Income:Capital Gains $-1,000.00
> > > Assets:Broker $2,480.05
> I think I kind of understand your explanation, but I have trouble
> understanding on a technical level how that transaction balances.
> When you write "you *also* have a capital gain of $20 per share", can I
...
Let me try to explain it the way I see it.
Assets:Broker contains 50 AAPL {$30.00}. We agree on that. This is
$1500. Now we can argue what it's really worth right now because the
value of AAPL goes up and down but we know that Assets:Broker contains
50 AAPL with a *book value* of $30 each and that's a total of $1500.
You can verify this with "bal Assets:Broker -B"
So now when you do:
Assets:Broker -50 AAPL {$30.00} @ $50.00
{$30.00} is the cost. @ $50.00 is the price. You're selling
something with a cost of $30.00 (the book value) for a price of $50.
So you're basically saying: hey, this APPL I own with a total book
value of $1500... you know what, I'm selling it for $2500
So Assets:Broker goes down by $1500 (remember, the book value!) and
you get $2500 (what you sold it for). That doesn't quite balance,
does it? So where does the difference come from? You made a gain.
So basically we have:
Assets:Broker -$1500 of APPL [book value]
Assets:Broker $2500 of cash
Income:Capital gains -$1000 (the balancing figure)
> imagine that this lot notation means that there is an implicit "hidden
> posting"
> Assets:Broker (($50 - $30) * 50)
> that is used to balance the "Income:Capital Gains" posting?
I don't think that's correct. Like I showed, Assets:Broker is just
$1500 (the book value).
At least this is how I understand it. Maybe I'm wrong, but my
explanation appears to make sense. ;)
--
Martin Michlmayr
https://www.cyrius.com/
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