Hello What are best practices for handling a situation, wherein you prepay a vendor a certain amount, and only after that do you generate vendor invoices to draw against that amount?
Is it sufficient to do a cash -> payment on no invoices--will that get me a credit limit for that vendor or some such? What I had planned to do, was to create an asset account, and transfer the $1,000.00 from checking to the asset account under that vendor's name, and then pay APs out of that asset account. Similar to how I might do it for an investment brokerage account. Just thought there might be an alternative method. Detailed version: My company pays Vendor X $1,000.00. Throughout the next year, when I need to buy something from them, I generate an AP or VI for the necessary amount. However, I have already paid them. I won't pay them again until those funds near depletion. (Ledgersmb 1.2.18) Luke ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Throughout its 18-year history, RSA Conference consistently attracts the world's best and brightest in the field, creating opportunities for Conference attendees to learn about information security's most important issues through interactions with peers, luminaries and emerging and established companies. http://p.sf.net/sfu/rsaconf-dev2dev _______________________________________________ Ledger-smb-users mailing list [email protected] https://lists.sourceforge.net/lists/listinfo/ledger-smb-users
