It seems to me that should be enough prior art to kill this patent.
Clearly there is. But is this fact sufficient to protect someone (re)deploying the mechanism? Or must the patent be revoked in some way prior to that? I mean, suppose I deploy the mechanism and IBM puts me in court. Can the court dismiss the case given proofs that the patent lacks innovation? (And is the patent revoked then?) Or are they bound to the patent title? Thanks. Not at all pressing.
-- license-discuss archive is at http://crynwr.com/cgi-bin/ezmlm-cgi?3
