On Wed, 2006-02-22 at 13:13 +0000, Immanuel Litzroth wrote: > "Hannu Savolainen" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: > > > > If you run out from barber's shop without paying it's very clearly a > > crime. You have stolen 1/N of barber's monthly salary. Is there anything > > that makes 1/Nth if artist's or programmer's salary less criminal than > > stealing 1/Nth of barber's salary? > > This is a laughably simplistic model of economic and social > reality. Suppose next to the barber B1 a second barber B2 moves in who > is subsidized by the government and can charge lower prices. B1 sees a > drop in his wages, so that he cannot afford a haircut anymore, and > runs out of B2's shop after having his hair cut. Now B2 comes into > B1's shop to have a haircut. Is he guilty of a crime if he runs out or > not?
They are both guilty, as they both ran out. And this is a pretty good argument that the government should not subsidize barbers ;-) Lee
