On Thu, 31 Aug 2000, Erik McKee wrote:
> Hello!
>
> This is one of my first posts here, so try to be gentle, please ;)
>
> Seems like if a thread which shares a VM with all the other threads of the
> same family does an execve, the following would be likely to occurr, using
> the standard definition of execve. The vm would be overwriteen with the
> new image, but this would have to wwipe out all the other threads in the
> process, 'cuz otherwise everything they refer to has just been overwritten
> by the results of the execve. However, if the execve'ing thread was
> allowed to spawn off intop a new address space before the execve, it would
> then become a new process, and leave the parent procvess with one less
> thread to worry about.
I think that's close to Linus' idea.
But it reminds me more a fork()+exec() rather than a simple exec().
OK. I'm clueless C programmer. I write:
program A:
pid = getpid(); /* imagine is 300 */
...
exec("program B");
program B:
...
pid = getpid(); /* I'm expecting 300 */
Then I modify A:
program A2:
pid = getpid(); /* 400 */
if (!fork()) {
exec("program B);
}
...
program B:
...
pid = getpid(); /* I'm expecting != 400 */
This is ok because that's what I asked for.
Suppose I make a MT version of A. It would behave just like A2.
The thread who's performing the exec() becomes a different process
and program B sees a different pid.
It's like saying: an exec() in a MT process behaves like a fork()+exec()
sequence in a normal process.
I'm not really against it... it's just a little weird.
Killing all threads, and doing a "real" exec(), leads to the expected
semantic. Of course, since you should expect the "defined" semantic,
that matter is about choosing the definition. B-)
BTW, I don't think it needs to be a kernel matter. exec() in a MT
program can be defined to kill all threads in userland before doing
the exec().
>
> Or am I being very stupid and overlooking something critical here?
Do you consider the above problem "critical"? B-)
>
> Have a nice day ;)
> Erik McKee
>
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.TM.
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