Hi > > I restarted the pfSense box and noticed that when it rebooted it had: > > > > WAN (wan) --> em1 --> 75.xx.xx.28 > > LAN (lan) --> em3 --> 172.16.254.1 > > DMZ (opt1) --> em2 --> NONE > > > > That is correct, right, since my servers in 75.xx.xx.xx are on the > > DMZ? Do I have to do anything to tell pfSense it should answer for my > > IP's? I recall when I ran untangle I had to sell it what IP's to > > "answer" for. > > If you don't have an IP address for opt1 (DMZ), that would mean that > you're bridging with WAN? I think you should be routing instead, but I > don't know exactly your goals.
Well my WAN has one of my 5 public IP's. I have 75.xx.xx.25 - .29 with a gateway of .30 So I have a few other public IP's on servers that I wanted on a DMZ. Just port 80 actually. So I want traffic on port 80 coming in through WAN getting routed to .27 which is on the DMZ. That way people hit my domain they get that box. So far I am not having luck getting this to work. I certainly have a misunderstanding, I am just not sure what. -Jason _______________________________________________ List mailing list [email protected] http://lists.pfsense.org/mailman/listinfo/list
