> particularly Times Square). The Andean (Bolivia, Peru, etc.) is mainly > played on end blown flutes, pan pipes and drums, and is an infectious sound.
Would you explain that a bit more extensively? > > This is obviously not definitive, I am speaking from the "top of my head", > as usual. But it is clear that the music of the Andes, where the > conquistadores amputated the culture of the Inca, has returned to some > extent. Whereas the music of Brazil has the African influence along with the > Spanish, and has little of the native. Probably Brazilian music has little to do with the Spanish one, as it was Portugal the country where their "conquistadores" came from. > The music of the Appalachians bears a strong resemblance to that of the > Scot's/Irish ancestors - but none to the native Indians. Is the music of > Central America, and Brazil (etc.) entirely a derivation of the Spanish of > that time? Or does it have a native component - I don't know. But the Andean > is heavily native. The region of the Andes it is also sub- divided, and it would be more complicated to establish the origin of the music of the different points... >
