I just read "A Tale of Two Cities" again.

Dickens, in his preface, claims a fair amount of authenticity
for the book.  This made me wonder to what extent French
lutenists were a part of the arrogant and powerful feudal
system which he portrayed.

The book's timeframe (1750-1800) was after the lute's
heyday, but several parts of the book (eg, the beginning
and end of Chapter 9) imply that the French nobility
system had been little changed over two hundred years.



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